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Post by xxxxxxxxx on Dec 2, 2021 22:05:05 GMT
A continuously changing finite number is always finite thus necessitating continuity as definable. However because it continuously changes the number in question always has a different definition and this difference necessitates an absence of definition as difference is the void of one set of qualities within another (ie 3 is 1 more than 2 thus 2 is different from 3 by 1, 2 is absent of 1 when compared to 3. This void of 1 is an absence of definition within 2). A paradox occurs.
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Post by Eugene 2.0 on Dec 3, 2021 15:31:05 GMT
Can't say where is the paradox.
4 has more lines, than 3, while 1, as the difference, is close to 4, than 3 (because of its curly).
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Post by xxxxxxxxx on Dec 8, 2021 22:18:56 GMT
Can't say where is the paradox. 4 has more lines, than 3, while 1, as the difference, is close to 4, than 3 (because of its curly). 1. A perpetually changing finite number is defined. 2. However this definition changes thus is undefined. 3. The changing finite number is both defined and undefined; defined in the respect it is finite, undefined in the respect it changes thus is no longer the same every time it is viewed (ie "sameness" is required for definition as we observed definition through a thing repeating such as a square with four lines). |
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