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Post by Eugene 2.0 on Oct 8, 2022 13:03:42 GMT
Let's imagine X and Y are identical in all its features, properties, abilities, whatsoever. Then X = Y, and even more - X and Y are completely the same. This fact is called the Leibniz Identity Law. But does it work? If X and Y were the same, then there would be no X and no Y, but only one X, and that's all. If X is X, and Y is Y, then X is not Y, and Y is not X. In other words, logically this means this: if x=y, then Px=Py but since if (x=x, and y=y), then (x≠y, and y≠x), therefore Px≠Py |
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Post by xxxxxxxxx on Oct 13, 2022 20:22:15 GMT
Let's imagine X and Y are identical in all its features, properties, abilities, whatsoever. Then X = Y, and even more - X and Y are completely the same. This fact is called the Leibniz Identity Law. But does it work? If X and Y were the same, then there would be no X and no Y, but only one X, and that's all. If X is X, and Y is Y, then X is not Y, and Y is not X. In other words, logically this means this: if x=y, then Px=Py but since if (x=x, and y=y), then (x≠y, and y≠x), therefore Px≠Py There is no totality equality as x=y necessitates the difference of x and y as x=x and y=y. Thus equality is the connection of two or more distinct things through an underlying quality both x and y share. This results in a paradox as there is no total equality but this absence of total equality is something all things share thus total equality exists. |
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