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1=0 II
May 12, 2022 17:49:58 GMT
Post by xxxxxxxxx on May 12, 2022 17:49:58 GMT
a. There is a totality of things.
b. This totality is one.
c. This one totality is without comparison, as it is everything, thus is indefinite.
d. This indefiniteness is the same as nothing, as there is no contrast, therefore 0.
e. 1=0 and A=-A.
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1=0 II
May 14, 2022 4:41:43 GMT
via mobile
Post by Eugene 2.0 on May 14, 2022 4:41:43 GMT
If 1=0 no matter what other conditions are, then "1" and "0" share some another metarule M. It doesn't really the thing what exactly M represents, but M must be some common for both of them. Therefore, in some sense 1≠0 or 1=1 and 0=0. Because we've got 1=1 and 0=0 we don't need in 1=0 since this way is failure.
And if 1=0 is true by some law L, and 1≠0 by some law W we would prefer W to L, and would rather reject L.
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1=0 II
May 18, 2022 21:43:11 GMT
Post by xxxxxxxxx on May 18, 2022 21:43:11 GMT
If 1=0 no matter what other conditions are, then "1" and "0" share some another metarule M. It doesn't really the thing what exactly M represents, but M must be some common for both of them. Therefore, in some sense 1≠0 or 1=1 and 0=0. Because we've got 1=1 and 0=0 we don't need in 1=0 since this way is failure. And if 1=0 is true by some law L, and 1≠0 by some law W we would prefer W to L, and would rather reject L. Because of the totality both 1 and 0 equivocate: The totality is 1 as there is only 1 "everything". This totality is without comparison, however, thus equates to 0 as without comparison any phenomenon is indefinite.
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1=0 II
May 18, 2022 21:46:23 GMT
Post by Eugene 2.0 on May 18, 2022 21:46:23 GMT
If 1=0 no matter what other conditions are, then "1" and "0" share some another metarule M. It doesn't really the thing what exactly M represents, but M must be some common for both of them. Therefore, in some sense 1≠0 or 1=1 and 0=0. Because we've got 1=1 and 0=0 we don't need in 1=0 since this way is failure. And if 1=0 is true by some law L, and 1≠0 by some law W we would prefer W to L, and would rather reject L. Because of the totality both 1 and 0 equivocate: The totality is 1 as there is only 1 "everything". This totality is without comparison, however, thus equates to 0 as without comparison any phenomenon is indefinite. According to your previous logic, if the totality is both 1 and 0, then the totality is singular, so it is not binary, so it is not 1 and 0. The totality must be the one, and only one. But because the totality must be the unchanging, and the unchanging requires some extra elements, then no totality is possible. So, the totality doesn't exist.
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1=0 II
May 18, 2022 21:56:58 GMT
Post by xxxxxxxxx on May 18, 2022 21:56:58 GMT
Because of the totality both 1 and 0 equivocate: The totality is 1 as there is only 1 "everything". This totality is without comparison, however, thus equates to 0 as without comparison any phenomenon is indefinite. According to your previous logic, if the totality is both 1 and 0, then the totality is singular, so it is not binary, so it is not 1 and 0. The totality must be the one, and only one. But because the totality must be the unchanging, and the unchanging requires some extra elements, then no totality is possible. So, the totality doesn't exist. 1 and 0 is not binary. The totality is unchanging because there is no contrast as only it exists. The totality is everything, past/present/future, and as such is indefinite because a the aforementioned absence of contrast. In other terms, the totality has no contrast because the contrast would require something to exist outside the "everything" therefore the "everything" is not the everything. In saying "totality", or the synonym of "everything", we are stating an absence of contrast.
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1=0 II
May 18, 2022 21:59:19 GMT
Post by Eugene 2.0 on May 18, 2022 21:59:19 GMT
1 and 0 are binary. Any binary system in computers have it: www.britannica.com/science/binary-number-systemIf the totality is everything, then it has got parts, and this parts are not that the totality, and through this difference, the totality is not the unchanging. But since this is impossible, it is impossible that the totality has got the parts.
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1=0 II
May 18, 2022 22:21:06 GMT
Post by xxxxxxxxx on May 18, 2022 22:21:06 GMT
1 and 0 are binary. Any binary system in computers have it: www.britannica.com/science/binary-number-systemIf the totality is everything, then it has got parts, and this parts are not that the totality, and through this difference, the totality is not the unchanging. But since this is impossible, it is impossible that the totality has got the parts. "and" necessitates an absence of separation thus unity. If the totality has parts these parts are extensions of the totality and as such are absolute as the totality is absolute. In other words the parts must always be the parts of the totality for the totality to exist as the totality is the parts. The self-referential nature of the totality necessitates it as unchanging; this self-referentiality necessitates an absence of comparison and we know the totality is self-referential because only the totality exists (ie only "being" exists).
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Post by MAYA-EL on May 23, 2022 6:09:28 GMT
According to your previous logic, if the totality is both 1 and 0, then the totality is singular, so it is not binary, so it is not 1 and 0. The totality must be the one, and only one. But because the totality must be the unchanging, and the unchanging requires some extra elements, then no totality is possible. So, the totality doesn't exist. 1 and 0 is not binary. The totality is unchanging because there is no contrast as only it exists. The totality is everything, past/present/future, and as such is indefinite because a the aforementioned absence of contrast. In other terms, the totality has no contrast because the contrast would require something to exist outside the "everything" therefore the "everything" is not the everything. In saying "totality", or the synonym of "everything", we are stating an absence of contrast. Wouldn't "nothing" be "something" to use as contrast for "everything"?
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1=0 II
May 26, 2022 22:44:56 GMT
Post by xxxxxxxxx on May 26, 2022 22:44:56 GMT
1 and 0 is not binary. The totality is unchanging because there is no contrast as only it exists. The totality is everything, past/present/future, and as such is indefinite because a the aforementioned absence of contrast. In other terms, the totality has no contrast because the contrast would require something to exist outside the "everything" therefore the "everything" is not the everything. In saying "totality", or the synonym of "everything", we are stating an absence of contrast. Wouldn't "nothing" be "something" to use as contrast for "everything"? Any definition through contrast would need a contrast of that contrast to occur for definition to result. The contrast of "nothing" and "everything" is in itself obscure given it is a defining line that runs through both. To elaborate my point: 1. You have light. 2. You have darkness. 3. You have the line between the two. 4. This line between the two separates them in one respect however in another respect the line is the origin of both light and dark as light/dark emerge from that same line; the line both connects and separates and is contradictory in nature...in other words it is senseless.
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1=0 II
May 27, 2022 1:00:04 GMT
via mobile
Post by MAYA-EL on May 27, 2022 1:00:04 GMT
Wouldn't "nothing" be "something" to use as contrast for "everything"? Any definition through contrast would need a contrast of that contrast to occur for definition to result. The contrast of "nothing" and "everything" is in itself obscure given it is a defining line that runs through both. To elaborate my point: 1. You have light. 2. You have darkness. 3. You have the line between the two. 4. This line between the two separates them in one respect however in another respect the line is the origin of both light and dark as light/dark emerge from that same line; the line both connects and separates and is contradictory in nature...in other words it is senseless. No that would just be your opinion on them
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1=0 II
Jun 2, 2022 20:14:52 GMT
Post by xxxxxxxxx on Jun 2, 2022 20:14:52 GMT
Any definition through contrast would need a contrast of that contrast to occur for definition to result. The contrast of "nothing" and "everything" is in itself obscure given it is a defining line that runs through both. To elaborate my point: 1. You have light. 2. You have darkness. 3. You have the line between the two. 4. This line between the two separates them in one respect however in another respect the line is the origin of both light and dark as light/dark emerge from that same line; the line both connects and separates and is contradictory in nature...in other words it is senseless. No that would just be your opinion on them And that is your opinion.
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