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Post by xxxxxxxxx on Mar 24, 2022 21:59:14 GMT
1. Infinite fullness and infinite emptiness both share the same quality of being indefinite thus one indefinite state is equal to another.
2. Being, ie fullness, and non-being, ie emptiness, thus both equate.
3. What negates this equivocation is if being/fullness and non-being/emptiness are both finite, however each as finite causes both again to equate under the quality of "finiteness".
4. Infinity and finiteness both differ however but this difference dissolves as infinity/finiteness both equivocate respectively through being/non-being ("being" is both infinite/finite and "non-being" is both infinite/finite).
5. What negates this equivocation is if being is infinite and non-being is finite or vice versa; however this results in obscurity as well given infinite "x" and finite "y" require infinite "x" existing through a continuity of finite "y" and the finite "y" existing through the non-continuity of the singular infinite "x".
6. One quality existing through the other necessitates equivocation and this equivocation results in sameness therefore P=-P.
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Post by Eugene 2.0 on Mar 25, 2022 8:05:26 GMT
It is true, I agree.
The empty set and the universal set are such that "the content" of the empty set is as well indefinite as the universal set. We don't know about the contents of those two, because in each case we don't know about them, except for some formal definitions.
We know about their indefiniteness only via formal knowledge, but as soon as any formal knowledge are impossible to describe indefiniteness (i.e. only by using words and notions), we cannot know for certain about each indefiniteness. Not knowing each of them, we cannot be certain about their equality. However, in some senses the equality of the indefinitiness of those two are similar.
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