Post by Hraefn on Mar 10, 2018 0:24:17 GMT
So I've been looking into the old English language, and was wondering how in the world the modern english language has the conjugation system it has. Other languages in Europe potentially influencing the english have similar conjugatiom systems to eachother, as well as Old English.
things for example, Estar, Prestar, Pedir, in Spanish, and German has this as well, But it's just gone from modern english. Old English Invinitives had either an -en or -an ending, like Spanish has -er -ar -ir endings. What I'm confused about is how the old English Conjugation system went from that, to "to run" "I run" "we go" "to go" in today's form of Engpish.
I was thinking, maybe 1066 had a say in this, maybe French has that kind of verb Conjugation system, and influenced the language that way. But nope, same system as German and Spanish for the most part. W h e r e did this unique and complicating verb Conjugation system in modern English come from?
things for example, Estar, Prestar, Pedir, in Spanish, and German has this as well, But it's just gone from modern english. Old English Invinitives had either an -en or -an ending, like Spanish has -er -ar -ir endings. What I'm confused about is how the old English Conjugation system went from that, to "to run" "I run" "we go" "to go" in today's form of Engpish.
I was thinking, maybe 1066 had a say in this, maybe French has that kind of verb Conjugation system, and influenced the language that way. But nope, same system as German and Spanish for the most part. W h e r e did this unique and complicating verb Conjugation system in modern English come from?
