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Post by Elizabeth on Feb 12, 2018 12:05:33 GMT
What do you think? Discuss.
Some philosophers argue that some knowledge is a priori (fully independent from experience). In contrast, radical empiricists argue that all knowledge is a posteriori (derived from experience).
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Post by Polaris on Feb 12, 2018 13:00:50 GMT
i think the two types of knowledge do not refer to one thing over which scholars differ, but rather two different areas of knowledge, the priori knowledge is that knowledge that does not need learning for example if i you know that i am Polaris you do not need some one to teach you that i am not Crux. you just know it. Posteriori refers to whatever that is learnt after being exposed to a certain experience
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Post by Deleted on Feb 12, 2018 16:41:38 GMT
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Post by Deleted on Feb 12, 2018 17:01:37 GMT
This is what she meant
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hussy
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Post by hussy on Feb 12, 2018 17:37:03 GMT
What do you think? Discuss. Some philosophers argue that some knowledge is a priori (fully independent from experience). In contrast, radical empiricists argue that all knowledge is a posteriori (derived from experience). Is instinctive action somewhat similar to priori knowledge?
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Post by Deleted on Feb 12, 2018 17:53:03 GMT
What do you think? Discuss. Some philosophers argue that some knowledge is a priori (fully independent from experience). In contrast, radical empiricists argue that all knowledge is a posteriori (derived from experience). Most of the knowledge transfering today is more like a fortiori
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Post by Elizabeth on Feb 12, 2018 20:12:56 GMT
What do you think? Discuss. Some philosophers argue that some knowledge is a priori (fully independent from experience). In contrast, radical empiricists argue that all knowledge is a posteriori (derived from experience). Is instinctive action somewhat similar to priori knowledge? I think it counts yeah
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Post by Polaris on Feb 12, 2018 21:43:35 GMT
What do you think? Discuss. Some philosophers argue that some knowledge is a priori (fully independent from experience). In contrast, radical empiricists argue that all knowledge is a posteriori (derived from experience). Is instinctive action somewhat similar to priori knowledge? i don't think instinctive action should be called priori knowledge, because instinctive action is a fixed pattern of innate behavior, whereas priori knowledge refers to the things that are so obvious you can learn them by yourself
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hussy
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Post by hussy on Feb 13, 2018 2:18:58 GMT
Is instinctive action somewhat similar to priori knowledge? i don't think instinctive action should be called priori knowledge, because instinctive action is a fixed pattern of innate behavior, whereas priori knowledge refers to the things that are so obvious you can learn them by yourself A calf or a baby learn breast feeding without any prior experience, so it seems like this kind of action also fall in in priori knowledge, even if it different there is very thin line between the two(instinctive & priori) , difficult to discern
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Post by Deleted on Feb 28, 2018 10:21:07 GMT
PolarisExactly. Knowledge of a priori is a knowledge i.e. discourse, built upon notions. Any imaginations of feelings can be helped here. Knowledge by a priori is a knowledge of a common things, so that close to ideas, metaphysically things. Anything else, including intuition or instincts based on physical body itself, that's why we can rely on them. Knowledge of a priori is a knowledge to be trusted. Leibniz was the first (probably; it's a matter of discussions) who invented/discovered that some simple propositions like "p implies q" (i) where 'p' is a 'specie' than 'q' is a 'genus'. So, propositions of type (i) are always true; these propositions are a priori.
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Post by Deleted on Feb 28, 2018 10:25:23 GMT
//posteriori (derived from experience).//
From where this experience is coming?
Certain hypothesis, model, or any other type of knowledge, from the past. This is the a priori knowledge. Aprior is generally taken as a basis to derive the next set of predictions or knowledge. However, it may not be necessary that a priori is correct. It is just a part of the set.
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Post by Deleted on Mar 1, 2018 9:13:20 GMT
lamburkVice versa, all a priori statements are necessary. Well, it's not easy for me to explain, since I'm not highly good deal with English. Ok, if we put in dictionary the word 'human', and said that 'human is an animal, a mammal...', then if you say that 'every human is an animal', it will be necessary truth, because the 'animal' is a genus (larger capacity...) and the 'human' is a 'specie' (smaller capacity). Another example, (I shall call it 'a set game') there's a set A {a, b, c, d} and there's another called B. B is the English alphabet. So, it's necessary that B contains A, or A implies B. The other question - how can we be sure about 'general' character of something in our head; how can we separate 'ideas' from just 'impressions'? These questions, among many others, were being solving by Hume in his 'Tractatus'. He would agree with you in your doubts of a priori nature of propositions, because he denied possibility of synthetic a priori judgements. For example, he wrote: "In common life it is established as a maxim, that the straightest way is always the shortest; which would be as absurd as to say, the shortest way is always the shortest, if our idea of a right line was not different from that of the shortest way betwixt two points" ('A Treatise of Human Nature') Our usual view can seem so solid and not ruined, but it can also be just an illusion. So, according to Hume we can object a connection between our experience and our notions, but if we use 'a set game' like I've described above, we can't be disagree of necessity of such propositions.
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frank
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Post by frank on Mar 6, 2018 22:35:33 GMT
In Iceland there are sheep. You know without ever seeing these sheep that if they exist, they take up space. They have height, length, and depth. This knowledge is apriori.
You know it's apriori because you can't imagine a real Icelandic sheep that has no spacial extension.
That's Kant's point. I find it to be fairly persuasive.
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Post by Elizabeth on Mar 6, 2018 23:28:38 GMT
In Iceland there are sheep. You know without ever seeing these sheep that if they exist, they take up space. They have height, length, and depth. This knowledge is apriori. You know it's apriori because you can't imagine a real Icelandic sheep that has no spacial extension. That's Kant's point. I find it to be fairly persuasive.
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tonio
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Post by tonio on Mar 8, 2018 21:29:35 GMT
Yes, a priori knowledge is possible. Because to negate that is to imply that an objective truth is either unnatainable or inexistent. And if that's the case, the "there is no objective truth" (or "no objective truth is attainable") statement is an objective truth itself, falling into contradiction.
The case is that Kant is too wordy and lenghty in his explanations, that people often don't interpret him the right way. And that's totally his fault.
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